10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.
The CPEDC exam has 100 questions and runs 4 hours.
These 10 free CPEDC questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Certified Pediatrics Coder blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
A 3-year-old receives emergency treatment after a caregiver misreads the concentration on an acetaminophen bottle and unintentionally gives an excessive dose. The emergency physician diagnoses toxic liver injury caused by the accidental overdose. How should the drug event and its manifestation be classified and sequenced for this encounter?
Correct answer: C - Accidental poisoning by acetaminophen first, followed by the toxic liver injury
Yesterday's emergency department note documents temporary splinting of a 13-year-old's displaced, closed tibial shaft fracture. Today, an orthopedist performs a closed reduction and applies a cast as definitive treatment. For the fracture diagnosis on today's claim, which encounter classification applies?
Correct answer: B - Initial encounter (A), because the fracture is receiving active treatment
A newborn is delivered at Hospital A and transferred to Hospital B on the day of birth. Hospital B's discharge summary documents prematurity at 34 completed weeks and a birth weight of 1,860 g. Prematurity and low birth weight are the only conditions requiring care during that admission. Which diagnosis sequence belongs on Hospital B's record?
Correct answer: A - P07 birth-weight code, then P07 gestational-age code; omit the Z38 liveborn code.
An established 8-year-old attends a well-child visit. The pediatrician completes the age-appropriate preventive history, examination, and anticipatory guidance. Separately, the physician evaluates worsening nighttime cough and exercise limitation, documents an asthma exacerbation, and increases the prescribed controller medication. The additional problem-oriented work is clearly documented. Using medical decision making for the problem visit, which combination represents the two services?
Correct answer: B - 99393 and 99214-25: preventive care plus a moderate-MDM problem visit
At an established patient's ADHD follow-up, the pediatrician documents that the 14-year-old is meeting treatment goals without adverse effects. After assessing response and tolerability, the physician continues the same oral stimulant prescription. No tests, outside records, or other conditions are addressed. Selecting the office visit by medical decision making rather than time, which code matches the overall MDM level?
Correct answer: A - 99213: low medical decision making
Time log for an established 13-year-old's migraine follow-up and separately reported wart destruction: Previous day: physician chart review, 10 minutes. Encounter date: physician preparation, 6 minutes; physician migraine evaluation and counseling, 21 minutes; physician orders and documentation, 7 minutes; wart destruction, 8 minutes; medical-assistant intake, 6 minutes. All intervals are nonoverlapping, and the migraine E/M work is significant and separately identifiable. The commercial payer follows CPT time rules. Which time-based E/M selection is justified?
Correct answer: B - 99214-25, using 34 minutes of qualifying physician time
The immunization record for a 12-year-old lists three injections: tetanus-diphtheria-acellular pertussis (Tdap), quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MenACWY), and 9-valent human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV). A nurse practitioner personally counsels the patient and parent about all three vaccines that day; a registered nurse then administers them. Vaccine products are reported separately. Which administration lines belong on the claim?
Correct answer: D - 90460, 3 units, and 90461, 2 units: first and additional vaccine components
A 15-year-old completes the PHQ-9 Modified for Teens. Staff score it, and the pediatrician reviews and documents the result: total score 17, item 9 scored zero, and negative responses to the supplemental suicide questions. The assessment states, 'Positive depression screen; diagnostic evaluation planned,' without establishing a depressive-disorder diagnosis. Which interpretation and reporting approach fit the completed service?
Correct answer: D - Moderately severe symptoms; report 96127 for the completed brief emotional assessment.
On an 18-day-old infant's first day in the neonatal intensive care unit, the admitting neonatologist manages septic shock and respiratory failure and performs endotracheal intubation. This is the group's initial inpatient critical-care service for the infant; the neonatologist provided no emergency department service. The record includes 58 minutes of critical-care work. What is the appropriate reporting choice for the neonatologist?
Correct answer: A - 99468: initial neonatal critical care, with the intubation included
An E/M audit concerns a pediatric cardiologist who reviews an unaffiliated urgent care clinician's note and a CBC that clinician ordered. The cardiologist also discusses management directly with that clinician and interprets an ECG, reporting the ECG interpretation separately with 93010. The management discussion is not separately billed. Which activity must be excluded from the E/M data element?
Correct answer: C - Interpreting the ECG whose interpretation is separately reported
The full bank has 1,020 more CPEDC questions with explanations.
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